Submitted by existential1 in Prisons (edited )
I dont understand, how is it intrinsically tied? please explain simply.
existential1 OP wrote
belonging naturally; essential.
In order to remove someone's rights and become their ward, the court system needs approval from a doctor and a judge/jury decision. In the police state's opinion, houseless people are better behind bars or institutions than minding their own business but effectively has to catch/release people unless they can get the aforementioned 2 conditions met. In which case, they get all of the person's assets, including things like social security checks and retirement income (if they're of age for that).
But how/in what ways does the police state influence doctors to approve of removing the rights & warding a person? In order for the two things to be intrinsically tied, I'd think they'd have to influence each other & become a vicious cycle.
Seems this friend of yours, the govt. is using their mental illnesses against them? And if so, How are they able to make the argument that the mental illnesses prevent the person from being able to take care of themselves?
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