Submitted by existential1 in Prisons (edited )

I have a close person to me who is currently on somewhere between their 2nd and 3rd year in mental health jail even though the court authority to hold them hasn't been reapproved since the first year (supposed to be done annually) and if they get out of the mental health jail they'll have to go to real jail for the two crimes of trespassing and resisting arrest (they were houseless). Even though they have been getting somewhat better mental health-wise since Covid restrictions were lowered and friends/family can visit, they'll very likely get much worse if they have to be thrown in jail and chained to appear in court since they currently live more like someone under house arrest.

Real lose-lose.

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intellectual wrote

I dont understand, how is it intrinsically tied? please explain simply.

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existential1 OP wrote

in·trin·sic
/inˈtrinzik,inˈtrinsik/
adjective
belonging naturally; essential.

In order to remove someone's rights and become their ward, the court system needs approval from a doctor and a judge/jury decision. In the police state's opinion, houseless people are better behind bars or institutions than minding their own business but effectively has to catch/release people unless they can get the aforementioned 2 conditions met. In which case, they get all of the person's assets, including things like social security checks and retirement income (if they're of age for that).

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intellectual wrote

But how/in what ways does the police state influence doctors to approve of removing the rights & warding a person? In order for the two things to be intrinsically tied, I'd think they'd have to influence each other & become a vicious cycle.

Seems this friend of yours, the govt. is using their mental illnesses against them? And if so, How are they able to make the argument that the mental illnesses prevent the person from being able to take care of themselves?

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