Submitted by PerfectSociety in Philosophy
What the paradox is trying to communicate is that at any particular instant in time the arrow does not traverse any distance. The problem uncovered by the paradox of the arrow in this case is quite simple: Because there are an infinite number of instances where at each instant distance traversed=0...how can it be that taking the sum of distances traversed at each instant results in some quantity of traversed distance other than 0? Adding 0 to itself an infinite number of times should still equal 0 right?
In math, we can prove that a line segment is comprised of infinite points (each point has a length of 0). Is this type of proof able to resolve Zeno's Paradox of the Arrow?
surreal wrote
tell me more, i've only started reading about dialetheism and stuff.
isn't the sum of infinite zeros still zero? Why is the length zero if we split it in infinite segments and not just infinitely small length? maybe the length of each segment is zero and not zero at the same time?